CCNA 2 Routing & Switching Essentials v6.0 Practice Exam Answers

2018

1. The buffers for packet processing and the running configuration file are temporarily stored in which type of router memory?

flash
NVRAM
RAM*
ROM

[alert-announce]RAM provides temporary storage for the running IOS, the running configuration file, the IP routing table, ARP table, and buffers for packet processing. In contrast, permanent storage of the IOS is provided by flash. NVRAM provides permanent storage of the startup configuration file, and ROM.provides permanent storage of the router bootup instructions and a limited IOS.[/alert-announce]

2. What is the minimum configuration for a router interface that is participating in IPv6 routing?

to have only a link-local IPv6 address*
to have both an IPv4 and an IPv6 address
to have a self-generated loopback address
to have both a link-local and a global unicast IPv6 address
to have only an automatically generated multicast IPv6 address

[alert-announce]With IPv6, a router interface typically has more than one IPv6 address. The router will at least have a link-local address that can be automatically generated, but the router commonly has an global unicast address also configured.[/alert-announce]

3. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v6.0 Practice Exam Answers q3

Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H2?

1
2*
3
4
5
6

[alert-announce]H1 creates the first Layer 2 header. The R1 router has to examine the destination IP address to determine how the packet is to be routed. If the packet is to be routed out another interface, as is the case with R1, the router strips the current Layer 2 header and attaches a new Layer 2 header. When R2 determines that the packet is to be sent out the LAN interface, R2 removes the Layer 2 header received from the serial link and attaches a new Ethernet header before transmitting the packet.[/alert-announce]

4. What command will enable a router to begin sending messages that allow it to configure a link-local address without using an IPv6 DHCP server?

the ipv6 route ::/0 command
a static route
the ip routing command
the ipv6 unicast-routing command*

[alert-announce]To enable IPv6 on a router you must use the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command or use the ipv6 enable interface configuration command. This is equivalent to entering ip routing to enable IPv4 routing on a router when it has been turned off. Keep in mind that IPv4 is enabled on a router by default. IPv6 is not enabled by default.[/alert-announce]

5. Which type of static route typically uses the distance parameter in the ip route global configuration command?

summary static route
default static route
floating static route*
standard static route

[alert-announce]Because a floating static route is not designed to be used as a primary route, its configuration requires a higher administrative distance than the usual default value of 1. When set higher than the administrative distance for the current routing protocol, the distance parameter allows the route to be used only when the primary route fails. All other forms of static routes have specific uses as primary routes.[/alert-announce]

6. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v6.0 Practice Exam Answers q6

Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?

C   192.168.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
S   10.0.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0
S   0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 192.168.2.2
S   10.0.2.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.2.2*

[alert-announce]The C in a routing table indicates an interface that is up and has an IP address assigned. The S in a routing table signifies that a route was installed using the ip route command. Two of the routing table entries shown are static routes to a specific destination (the 10.0.2.0 network). The entry that has the S denoting a static route and [1/0] was configured using the next-hop address. The other entry (S 10.0.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0) is a static route configured using the exit interface. The entry with the 0.0.0.0 route is a default static route which is used to send packets to any destination network that is not specifically listed in the routing table.[/alert-announce]

7. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v6.0 Practice Exam Answers q7

Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?

directly attached static route
recursive static route*
fully specified static route
floating static route

[alert-announce]The route provided points to another address that must be looked up in the routing table. This makes the route a recursive static route.[/alert-announce]

8. A network administrator has entered the following command: ip route 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192 serial0/0/1 When the network administrator enters the command show ip route, the route is not in the routing table. What should the administrator do next?

Re-enter the command using the correct mask.
Verify that the serial 0/0/1 interface is active and available.*
Verify that the 192.168.10.64 network is active within the network infrastructure.
Re-enter the command using a network number rather than a usable IP address.

[alert-announce]The reason that a correctly typed static network would not go into the routing table is if the exit interface is not available. The 192.168.10.64 is a valid network number and that route does not have to be “up and up” in order for a static route to be configured on a remote router.[/alert-announce]

9. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v6.0 Practice Exam Answers q9

This network has two connections to the ISP, one via router C and one via router B. The serial link between router A and router C supports EIGRP and is the primary link to the Internet. If the primary link fails, the administrator needs a floating static route that avoids recursive route lookups and any potential next-hop issues caused by the multiaccess nature of the Ethernet segment with router B. What should the administrator configure?

Create a static route pointing to Fa0/0 with an AD of 1.
Create a static route pointing to 10.1.1.1 with an AD of 1.
Create a static route pointing to 10.1.1.1 with an AD of 95.
Create a fully specified static route pointing to Fa0/0 with an AD of 1.
Create a fully specified static route pointing to Fa0/0 with an AD of 95.*

10. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v6.0 Practice Exam Answers q10

How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?

The ip route command was used.
The ipv6 route command was used.
Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol.*
The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network routing protocol configuration mode command.

[alert-announce]A default route is presented in EIGRP with an asterisk (*) and the 0.0.0.0/0 entry. The route was learned through EIGRP and the Serial0/0/1 interface on the router.[/alert-announce]

11. To enable RIP routing for a specific subnet, the configuration command network 192.168.5.64 was entered by the network administrator. What address, if any, appears in the running configuration file to identify this network?

192.168.5.64
192.168.5.0*
192.168.0.0
No address is displayed.

[alert-announce]RIP is a classful routing protocol, meaning it will automatically convert the subnet ID that was entered into the classful address of 192.168.5.0 when it is displayed in the running configuration.[/alert-announce]

12. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v6.0 Practice Exam Answers q12

What is the administrative distance value that indicates the route for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network?

1*
120
0
2

[alert-announce]Router 2 is using a static route to reach network 10.10.0.0 and static routes have an administrative distance of 1.[/alert-announce]

13. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v6.0 Practice Exam Answers q13

Which type of route is 172.16.0.0/16?

child route
ultimate route
default route
level 1 parent route*

[alert-announce]A level 1 parent route displays the classful network address, the number of subnets, and the number of different subnet masks that the classful address has been subdivided into. It does not have an exit interface. A child route, ultimate route, and default route all have exit interfaces that are associated with them.[/alert-announce]

14. What is the name of the layer in the Cisco borderless switched network design that would have more switches deployed than other layers in the network design of a large organization?

Access*
core
data link
network
network access

[alert-announce]Access layer switches provide user access to the network. End user devices, such as PCs, access points, printers, and copiers, would require a port on a switch in order to connect to the network. Thus, more switches are needed in the access layer than are needed in the core and distribution layers.[/alert-announce]

15. What is a function of the distribution layer?

fault isolation
network access to the user
high-speed backbone connectivity
interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets*

[alert-announce]The distribution layer interacts between the access layer and the core by aggregating access layer connections in wiring closets, providing intelligent routing and switching, and applying access policies to access the rest of the network. Fault isolation and high-speed backbone connectivity are the primary functions of the core layer. The main function of the access layer is to provide network access to the user.[/alert-announce]

16. Which network design principle focuses on the capability of on-demand seamless network expansion in a switched network?

flexibility
resiliency
modularity*
hierarchical

[alert-announce]There are several sound network design principles that should be used when building design guidelines for a borderless switched network:
Hierarchical – Defines the role of each device at every tier, simplifies deployment, operation, and management, and reduces fault domains at every tier
Modularity – Allows seamless network expansion and integrated service enablement on an on-demand basis
Resiliency – Satisfies user expectations for keeping the network always on
Flexibility – Allows intelligent traffic load sharing by using multiple network resources simultaneously[/alert-announce]

17. A lab in a network management software company is configuring a testing environment to verify the performance of new software with different network connectivity speeds, including FastEthernet, GigabitEthernet, and 10 GigabitEthernet, and with copper and fiber optic connections. Which type of switch should the software company purchase to perform the tests?

fixed configuration
modular configuration*
stackable
access layer

[alert-announce]A modular configuration switch is used at the distribution and core layers. A modular configuration switch usually takes 3 rack units or more. Modular configuration switches offer more flexibility in the types and number of ports as well as the expansion cards that can be used. A fixed configuration switch tends to be an access layer switch. Stackable switches are usually access layer switches that have been cabled together.[/alert-announce]

18. What information is added to the switch table from incoming frames?

source MAC address and incoming port number*
destination MAC address and incoming port number
source IP address and incoming port number
destination IP address and incoming port number

[alert-announce]A switch “learns” or builds the MAC address table based on the source MAC address as a frame comes into the switch. A switch forwards the frame onward based on the destination MAC address.[/alert-announce]

19. Which statement correctly describes how a LAN switch forwards frames that it receives?

Only frames with a broadcast destination address are forwarded out all active switch ports.
Unicast frames are always forwarded regardless of the destination MAC address.
Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table.*
Cut-through frame forwarding ensures that invalid frames are always dropped.

[alert-announce]Cut-through frame forwarding reads up to only the first 22 bytes of a frame, which excludes the frame check sequence and thus invalid frames may be forwarded. In addition to broadcast frames, frames with a destination MAC address that is not in the CAM are also flooded out all active ports. Unicast frames are not always forwarded. Received frames with a destination MAC address that is associated with the switch port on which it is received are not forwarded because the destination exists on the network segment connected to that port..[/alert-announce]

20. Which switching method provides error-free data transmission?

fragment-free
fast-forward
integrity-checking
store-and-forward*

21. Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?

An encapsulation mismatch has occurred.
A cable has not been attached to the port.*
The no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface.
There is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.

[alert-announce]If an interface has not been brought up with the no shutdown command, the interface status shows administratively down. A duplicate IP address will not bring an interface down. An encapsulation error is normally found using the show interfaces command.[/alert-announce]

22. A company security policy requires that all MAC addressing be dynamically learned and added to both the MAC address table and the running configuration on each switch. Which port security configuration will accomplish this?

auto secure MAC addresses
dynamic secure MAC addresses
static secure MAC addresses
sticky secure MAC addresses*

[alert-announce]With sticky secure MAC addressing, the MAC addresses can be either dynamically learned or manually configured and then stored in the address table and added to the running configuration file. In contrast, dynamic secure MAC addressing provides for dynamically learned MAC addressing that is stored only in the address table.[/alert-announce]

23. A network technician is configuring port security on switches. The interfaces on the switches are configured in such a way that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source addresses are dropped and no notification is sent. Which violation mode is configured on the interfaces?

off
restrict
protect*
shutdown

24. After sticky learning of MAC addresses is enabled, what action is needed to prevent dynamically learned MAC addresses from being lost in the event that an associated interface goes down?

Shut down the interface then enable it again with the no shutdown command.
Configure port security for violation protect mode.
Reboot the switch.
Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration.*

[alert-announce]When sticky learning is enabled, dynamically learned MAC addresses are stored in the running configuration in RAM and will be lost if the switch is rebooted or an interface goes down. To prevent the loss of learned MAC addresses, an administrator can save the running configuration into the startup configuration in NVRAM.[/alert-announce]

25. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v6.0 Practice Exam Answers q25

A small business uses VLANs 8, 20, 25, and 30 on two switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?

1
5*
8
20
25
30

[alert-announce]Cisco recommends using a VLAN that is not used for anything else for the native VLAN. The native VLAN should also not be left to the default of VLAN 1. VLAN 5 is the only VLAN that is not used and not VLAN 1.[/alert-announce]

26. Which three statements accurately describe VLAN types? (Choose three).

A management VLAN is any VLAN that is configured to access management features of the switch.*
A data VLAN is used to carry VLAN management data and user-generated traffic.
After the initial boot of an unconfigured switch, all ports are members of the default VLAN.*
An 802.1Q trunk port, with a native VLAN assigned, supports both tagged and untagged traffic.*
Voice VLANs are used to support user phone and e-mail traffic on a network.
VLAN 1 is always used as the management VLAN.

27. On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?

Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat
Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100
Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100
Switch(config)# no vlan 100*

28. Which type of inter-VLAN communication design requires the configuration of multiple subinterfaces?

router on a stick*
routing via a multilayer switch
routing for the management VLAN
legacy inter-VLAN routing

29. A network administrator is configuring an ACL with the command access-list 10 permit 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255. Which IPv4 address matches the ACE?

172.16.20.2
172.16.26.254
172.16.45.2*
172.16.48.5

[alert-announce]With the wildcard mask of 0.0.15.255, the IPv4 addresses that match the ACE are in the range of 172.16.32.0 to 172.16.47.255.[/alert-announce]

30. Which command is issued in the VTY line configuration mode to apply a standard ACL that will control Telnet access to a router?

access-group 11 in
access-class 11 in*
access-list 11 in
access-list 110 in

[alert-announce]The access-class 11 in command applies a standard ACL to the VTY lines of a router to control Telnet and SSH access. The access-group 11 in command would be issued on a router interface to apply an ACL, and because it applies a standard ACL, all IP traffic will be filtered, not just Telnet and SSH communications bound for the VTY lines. The access-list command creates the access control expressions of an ACL but do not apply the ACl to a router interface or line.[/alert-announce]

31. Which series of commands will cause access list 15 to restrict Telnet access on a router?

R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# access-class 15 in*

R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# ip access-group 15 in

R1(config)# int gi0/0
R1(config-if)# access-class 15 in

R1(config)# int gi0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 15 in

[alert-announce]Once an access list to restrict Telnet or SSH access has been created, it is applied to the vty lines with the access-class command. This will restrict Telnet or SSH access.[/alert-announce]

32. Which DHCP IPv4 message contains the following information?

Destination address: 255.255.255.255
Client IPv4 address: 0.0.0.0
Default gateway address: 0.0.0.0
Subnet mask: 0.0.0.0

DHCPACK
DHCPDISCOVER*
DHCPOFFER
DHCPREQUEST

[alert-announce]A client will first send the DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message to find DHCPv4 servers on the network. This message will have the limited broadcast address, 255.255.255.255, as the destination address. The client IPv4 address, the default gateway address, and subnet fields will all be 0.0.0.0 because these have not yet been configured on the client. When the DHCPv4 server receives a DHCPDISCOVER message, it reserves an available IPv4 address to lease to the client and sends the unicast DHCPOFFER message to the requesting client. When the client receives the DHCPOFFER from the server, it sends back a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message. On receiving the DHCPREQUEST message, the server replies with a unicast DHCPACK message.[/alert-announce]

33. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v6.0 Practice Exam Answers q33

If the IP addresses of the default gateway router and the DNS server are correct, what is the configuration problem?

The DNS server and the default gateway router should be in the same subnet.
The IP address of the default gateway router is not contained in the excluded address list.*
The default-router and dns-server commands need to be configured with subnet masks.
The IP address of the DNS server is not contained in the excluded address list.

[alert-announce]In this configuration, the excluded address list should include the address that is assigned to the default gateway router. So the command should be ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.10.1 192.168.10.9.[/alert-announce]

34. A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?

It must send a DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST message to request the address of the DNS server.
It must send an ICMPv6 Router Solicitation message to determine what default gateway it should use.
It must send a DHCPv6 REQUEST message to the DHCPv6 server to request permission to use this address.
It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network.*

[alert-announce]Stateless DHCPv6 or stateful DHCPv6 uses a DHCP server, but Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) does not. A SLAAC client can automatically generate an address that is based on information from local routers via Router Advertisement (RA) messages. Once an address has been assigned to an interface via SLAAC, the client must ensure via Duplicate Address Detection (DAD) that the address is not already in use. It does this by sending out an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message and listening for a response. If a response is received, then it means that another device is already using this address.[/alert-announce]

35. A network administrator is implementing DHCPv6 for the company. The administrator configures a router to send RA messages with M flag as 1 by using the interface command ipv6 nd managed-config-flag. What effect will this configuration have on the operation of the clients?

Clients must use the information that is contained in RA messages.
Clients must use all configuration information that is provided by a DHCPv6 server.*
Clients must use the prefix and prefix length that are provided by a DHCPv6 server and generate a random interface ID.
Clients must use the prefix and prefix length that are provided by RA messages and obtain additional information from a DHCPv6 server.

[alert-announce]Under stateful DHCPv6 configuration, which is indicated by setting M flag as 1 (through the interface command ipv6 nd managed-config-flag), the dynamic IPv6 address assignments are managed by the DHCPv6 server. Clients must obtain all configuration information from a DHCPv6 server.[/alert-announce]

36. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v6.0 Practice Exam Answers q36

The users on the LAN network of R1 cannot receive an IPv6 address from the configured stateful DHCPv6 server. What is missing from the stateful DHCPv6 configuration on router R1?

IPv6 has not been enabled globally on router R1.
The DHCPv6 pool has not been bound to the LAN interface.
The FA0/0 interface is missing the command that informs the clients to use stateful DHCPv6.*
The DHCPv6 pool does not match the IPv6 address configured on interface FA0/0.

[alert-announce]When configuring a router interface for stateful DHCPv6, the router must be able to inform the host PC’s to receive IPv6 addressing from a stateful DHCPv6 server. The interface command is ipv6 nd managed-config-flag[/alert-announce]

37. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v6.0 Practice Exam Answers q37

NAT is configured on R1 and R2. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between R2 and the web server?

10.130.5.76
209.165.200.245*
172.16.1.10
203.0.113.5
192.0.2.1
172.16.1.1

[alert-announce]Because the packet is between R2 and the web server, the source IP address is the inside global address of PC, 209.165.200.245.[/alert-announce]

38. What is a disadvantage when both sides of a communication use PAT?

Host IPv4 addressing is complicated.
End-to-end IPv4 traceability is lost.*
The flexibility of connections to the Internet is reduced.
The security of the communication is negatively impacted.

39. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v6.0 Practice Exam Answers q39

R1 is configured for NAT as displayed. What is wrong with the configuration?

Access-list 1 is misconfigured.
NAT-POOL2 is not bound to ACL 1.*
Interface Fa0/0 should be identified as an outside NAT interface.
The NAT pool is incorrect.

[alert-announce]R1 has to have NAT-POOL2 bound to ACL 1. This is accomplished with the command R1(config)#ip nat inside source list 1 pool NAT-POOL2. This would enable the router to check for all interesting traffic and if it matches ACL 1 it would be translated by use of the addresses in NAT-POOL2.[/alert-announce]

40. A network engineer is configuring PAT on a router and has issued the command:

ip nat source list 1 interface serial 0/1/0 overload

Which additional command is required to specify addresses from the 192.168.128.0/18 network as the inside local addresses?

access-list 1 permit 192.168.128.0 255.255.192.0
access-list 1 permit 192.168.128.0 0.0.127.255
access-list 1 permit 192.168.128.0 0.0.63.255*
ip nat inside source list 1 pool INSIDE_NAT_POOL
ip nat inside source static 192.168.128.0 209.165.200.254

[alert-announce]A standard access list with the appropriate wildcard mask specifies the inside local addresses to be translated. The ip nat inside source list 1 pool NAT_POOL command configures NAT to use a pool of outside global addresses, not a single outside interface address as required. The ip nat inside source static 192.168.128.0 209.165.200.254 command configures one-to-one static NAT, not PAT as the overload keyword specifies.[/alert-announce]

41. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v6.0 Practice Exam Answers q41

A company has an internal network of 192.168.10.0/24 for their employee workstations and a DMZ network of 192.168.3.0/24 to host servers. The company uses NAT when inside hosts connect to outside network. A network administrator issues the show ip nat translations command to check the NAT configurations. Which one of source IPv4 addresses is translated by R1 with PAT?

10.0.0.31
192.168.3.5
192.168.3.33
192.168.10.35*
172.16.20.5

42. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v6.0 Practice Exam Answers q42

A network administrator has just configured address translation and is verifying the configuration. What three things can the administrator verify? (Choose three.)

Address translation is working.*
Three addresses from the NAT pool are being used by hosts.
The name of the NAT pool is refCount.
A standard access list numbered 1 was used as part of the configuration process.
Two types of NAT are enabled.*
One port on the router is not participating in the address translation.

[alert-announce]The show ip nat statistics, show ip nat translations, and debug ip nat commands are useful in determining if NAT is working and and also useful in troubleshooting problems that are associated with NAT. NAT is working, as shown by the hits and misses count. Because there are four misses, a problem might be evident. The standard access list numbered 1 is being used and the translation pool is named NAT as evidenced by the last line of the output. Both static NAT and NAT overload are used as seen in the Total translations line.[/alert-announce]

43. Which destination do Cisco routers and switches use by default when sending syslog messages for all severity levels?

Console*
nearest syslog server
NVRAM
RAM

[alert-announce]Syslog messages for Cisco routers and switches can be sent to memory, the console, a tty line, or to a syslog server.[/alert-announce]

44. Which requirement should be checked before a network administrator performs an IOS image upgrade on a router?

The FTP server is operational.
The old IOS image file has been deleted.
There is sufficient space in flash memory.*
The desired IOS image file has been downloaded to the router.

[alert-announce]Before an upgrade process starts, the user must make sure that there is sufficient space in the flash to host the new IOS image file. An old IOS file does not have to be deleted as long as there is sufficient space available for the new IOS file. FTP is not supported for the IOS upgrading process. Instead, a TFTP server is used. The new IOS image should be downloaded and loaded to the TFTP server.[/alert-announce]

45. A network administrator configures a router with the command sequence:

R1(config)# boot system tftp://c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin
R1(config)# boot system rom

What is the effect of the command sequence?

On next reboot, the router will load the IOS image from ROM.
The router will copy the IOS image from the TFTP server and then reboot the system.
The router will load IOS from the TFTP server. If the image fails to load, it will load the IOS image from ROM.*
The router will search and load a valid IOS image in the sequence of flash, TFTP, and ROM.

[alert-announce]The boot system command is a global configuration command that allows the user to specify the source for the Cisco IOS Software image to load. In this case, the router is configured to boot from the IOS image that is stored on the TFTP server and will use the ROMmon imagethat is located in the ROM if it fails to locate the TFTP server or fails to load a valid image from the TFTP server.[/alert-announce]

46. Which three software packages are available for Cisco IOS Release 15.0?

DATA*
IPVoice
Security*
Enterprise Services
Unified Communications*
Advanced IP Services

[alert-announce]Cisco IOS Release 15.0 has four available technology software packages.
IPBase
DATA
Unified Communications
Security[/alert-announce]

47. What two license states would be expected on a new Cisco router once the license has been activated? (Choose two.)

License Type: ipbasek9
License Type: Permanent*
License Type: Temporary
License State: Active, In Use*
License State: Active, Registered
License State: On

[alert-announce]When the show license command is issued, the following information is a sample of what would be found once the license has been activated:
Index 1 Feature: ipbasek9
Period left: Life time
License Type: Permanent
License State: Active, In Use
License Count: Non-Counted
License Priority: Medium
It is important for a technician to be able to verify an activated IOS 15 license.[/alert-announce]

48. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.Which code is displayed on the web browser?

Great!
It works!*
Welldone!
Inter-VLAN configured!

49. Fill in the blank.

In IPv6, all routes are level __1__ ultimate routes.

[alert-announce]IPv6 is classless by design, making all routes level 1 ultimate routes by default.[/alert-announce]

50. Fill in the blank.

The acronym __voip__ describes the type of traffic that requires a separate VLAN, strict QoS requirements, and a one-way overall delay less than 150 ms across the network. These restrictions help to ensure traffic quality.

[alert-announce]VoIP traffic tends to have a separate VLAN to ensure that voice quality is maintained. VoIP traffic requires:
assured bandwidth to ensure voice quality
transmission priority over other types of network traffic
ability to be routed around congested areas on the network
delay of less than 150 ms across the network[/alert-announce]

51. What two license conditions would be expected on a new Cisco router once the license has been activated? (Choose two.)

License Type: Permanent*
License Type: ipbasek9
License Type: Temporary
License State: On
License State: Active, In Use*
License State: Active, Registered

52. A technician is configuring a switch to allow access both to IP phones and to PCs on interface Fa0/12. The technician enters the interface command mls qos trust cos. What is the reason for including that command?

It is used in conjuction with STP PortFast to ensure that interface Fa0/12, in case of a shutdown, regains an “up” state immediately.
It is used to verify service levels and to ensure that congestion over serial interfaces is minimized for voice traffic.
It is used to set the trusted state of an interface to allow classification of traffic for QoS based on the CoS value of the IP phone.*
It is used to provide higher categories of security for voice and video traffic.

[alert-announce]The class of service (CoS) value is a number placed inside a field in the 802.1Q or ISL trunking header and used for prioritizing traffic and providing quality of service (QoS). The mls qos trust cos command is used when a VoIP phone attaches to a Cisco switch and QoS is implemented.[/alert-announce]

53. In an IPv6 routing table, all routing table entries are classified as which type of routes?

level 2 child routes
level 1 parent routes
level 1 ultimate routes*
level 1 network routes