CCNA 2 Routing and Switching Essentials Final Exam v5.0

What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

Fill in the blank.

Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?

When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?

A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?

Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?

Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?

Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)

A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?

Match the order in which the link-state routing process occurs on a router.

Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?

How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?

Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?

Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

What caused the following error message to appear?

01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state
01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.
01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down
01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)

A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?

Match the switching characteristic to the correct term.

What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?

Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.)

On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?

A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

What is a function of the distribution layer?

A small-sized company has 20 workstations and 2 servers. The company has been assigned a group of IPv4 addresses 209.165.200.224/29 from its ISP. What technology should the company implement in order to allow the workstations to access the services over the Internet?

Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)

What is a disadvantage of NAT?

Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?

Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?

What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?

Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)

When configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections, what is the purpose of the crypto key generate rsa command?

Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
What is the problem preventing PC0 and PC1 from communicating with PC2 and PC3?

Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?

Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?

Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)

A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?

Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?

What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?

What benefit does NAT64 provide?

What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?

Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?

Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?

A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology?

Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose two.)

Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which keyword is displayed on the web browser?

Refer to the exhibit.

What summary static address would be configured on R1 to advertise to R3?

Fill in the blank.